Proof of P = Fv.

I've been trying to understand the formula P = Fv, but I don't really like the traditional way of explaining it. My math background is much stronger than my physics background, so I often try to come up with my own proofs for physics that better fit my mathematical background. My question is, is this proof valid for P = Fv? I believe it is as it arives at the correct result and the logic seems sound, but one thing that bothers me is I can't find a similar derivation online which makes me think it is either wrong, or I have come up with my own unique derivation (although I highly doubt it).

My Idea for Deriving P=Fv

  1. I begin with the formula for kinetic energy: $E_k=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ 
  2. Taking the derivative with respect to velocity, I find $\frac{dE_k}{dv} = mv$ , which gives the rate of change of kinetic energy with respect to velocity.
  3. I interpret mv as the change in kinetic energy per unit increase in velocity. To connect this to power, I add the following reasoning:
    • Power is energy transferred per second. If we assume a 1 m/s increase in velocity happens in 1 second,  then mv represents the amount of energy added per second in this scenario.
    • This assumption corresponds to an acceleration of 1 m/s^2. For a different acceleration, we can scale the result proportionally. For example, if the acceleration is a, the energy change per second scales to amv, as the rate of velocity increase is now a rather than 1.
  4. A driving force is applied to increase the object's velocity over time. Simultaneously, a resistive force (like  friction) opposes the motion. These forces alternate, balancing out to maintain constant velocity.
  5. By imagining the alternation of driving and resistive forces happening over smaller and smaller time intervals (x→0), I treat the kinetic energy as a boundary condition that fluctuates around a stable value. The power delivered by the driving force can then still be understood in terms of kinetic energy changes.
  6. In this setup, P = Fv emerges naturally when scaling up or down based on acceleration or force. This approach connects power and kinetic energy more explicitly than conventional methods, which often skip this link.

To me this seems far more logical than traditional explanations, but I am conernced that I have gone wrong somewhere. If this is a sound explaination then why isn't it used (I can't find it anywhere) as it seems to connect kinetic energy to power far better than traditional methods. 

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