Hey there! I'm currently studying Phyrronic Skepticism and have come up with a question that will seriously affect the conclusions I reach.
P(n) depends on P(n+1) in such a way that if P(n+1) is true, P(n) has a 99.9% chance of being true. You can extend this indefinitely (so that P(1939532) has a 99.9% chance of being true if P(1939533) is true, and so on)
Is the probability of P(n) being true ultimately 0?
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