Let $z = f(x − y)$. Show that $\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=0$
Answer
Answers can only be viewed under the following conditions:
- The questioner was satisfied with and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was evaluated as being 100% correct by the judge.
1 Attachment

236
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to a 50% commission on every question that your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 799 views
- $2.00
Related Questions
- Evluate $\int_{|z|=3}\frac{1}{z^5(z^2+z+1)}\ dz$
- Does $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{2^{n^2}}{n!}$ exist?
- Algebra question
- Fermat's method of calculus
- Solve only for the multiple choice part, the answer for the first box is 0
- Double, Triple, and Change in Variables of Integrals Problems
- Calculus problems on improper integrals
- Is $\int_1^{\infty}\frac{x+\sqrt{x}+\sin x}{x^2-x+1}dx$ convergent?
Do you mean z=f(x,y)=x-y ?
No, z=f(x-y). There is no typo.