A problem on almost singular measures in real analysis
Suppose that $\mu$ and $\nu$ are finite measures on a measurable space $(X,\mathcal{M})$. Prove that either $\nu \perp \mu$ or there exists $\epsilon > 0$ and a measurable set $E \subseteq X$ such that $\mu(E) > 0$ and $\nu \ge \epsilon \mu$ on $E$ (that is, every measurable set $S \subseteq E$ has $\nu(S) \ge \epsilon \mu(S)$).
53
Answer
Answers can only be viewed under the following conditions:
- The questioner was satisfied with and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was evaluated as being 100% correct by the judge.
46
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to a 50% commission on every question that your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 1436 views
- $7.00
Related Questions
- Existence of a Divergent Subsequence to Infinity in Unbounded Sequences
- What is the Lebesgue density of $A$ and $B$ which answers a previous question?
- Prove Holder-continuity for $\mu_\lambda (x) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{ \cos(2^n x)}{2^{n \lambda} }$
- Is it true almost all Lebesgue measurable functions are non-integrable?
- Banach fixed-point theorem and the map $Tf(x)=\int_0^x f(s)ds $ on $C[0,1]$
- $\textbf{I would like a proof in detail of the following question.}$
- Assume there is no $x ∈ R$ such that $f(x) = f'(x) = 0$. Show that $$S =\{x: 0≤x≤1,f(x)=0\}$$ is finite.
- Pathwise connected