A fund pays 1 at time t = 0, 2 at time t = 2n and 1 at time t = 4n. The
present value of the payments is 3.61. Calculate $(1 + i)^n$.
Answer
Answers can only be viewed under the following conditions:
- The questioner was satisfied with and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was evaluated as being 100% correct by the judge.
Kav10
1.9K
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to a 50% commission on every question that your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 603 views
- $13.00
Related Questions
- Reconciling Kelly Criterion derivatives
- Year 12 Finance - Combining Superannuation and withdrawals
- Internal Rate of Return vs Discount Rate
- Make a graphical of analysis of the Strong Axiom of Revelead Preference
- Compound Interest with monthly added capital
- Kelly Criterion for an example
- Finding Probability Density Function of a Standard Brownian motion: Conditioning for two different cases
- Disecting Constant Product formula