Probability Question (Expectation Value Limit)
Show that for any $\phi \in C_0(\mathbb{R^n})$ (a continuous function on $\mathbb{R^n}$ which tends to 0 at $\infty$), if we set
$\phi_\epsilon(x) = \mathbb{E}\phi(x + \epsilon Z)$
for any random variable $Z$ on $\mathbb{R^n}$, then $\phi_\epsilon(x)$ → $\phi(x)$ as $\epsilon$ → 0.
369
Answer
Answers can be viewed only if
- The questioner was satisfied and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was disputed, but the judge evaluated it as 100% correct.
1 Attachment
42
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to 50% commission on every question your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 293 views
- $10.00
Related Questions
- How do you calculate per 1,000? And how do you compensate for additional variables?
- Calculating Dependant Probability of Multiple Events
- Car accidents and the Poisson distribution
- Probability/Analysis Question
- Find the maximum likelihood estimate
- Draw a token from a bag of 9 blue tokens and 1 red token
- What is the probability that the last person to board an airplane gets to sit in their assigned seat?
- applied probability
Should we interpret x as being real valued and deterministic?