Probability Question (Expectation Value Limit)
Show that for any $\phi \in C_0(\mathbb{R^n})$ (a continuous function on $\mathbb{R^n}$ which tends to 0 at $\infty$), if we set
$\phi_\epsilon(x) = \mathbb{E}\phi(x + \epsilon Z)$
for any random variable $Z$ on $\mathbb{R^n}$, then $\phi_\epsilon(x)$ → $\phi(x)$ as $\epsilon$ → 0.
L Ellis
369
Answer
Answers can only be viewed under the following conditions:
- The questioner was satisfied with and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was evaluated as being 100% correct by the judge.
1 Attachment
Cmartman
42
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to a 50% commission on every question that your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 651 views
- $10.00
Related Questions
- How do you calculate per 1,000? And how do you compensate for additional variables?
- Differently loaded dices in repeated runs
- foundations in probability
- Prove that the following sequences monotnically decrease and increase correspondingly. Since they are bounded, find the limit.
- Geometric distribution
- What are the odds of drawing the two tarot cards that I wanted, then reshuffling the pack, and drawing them both again straight away, in the same order?
- Find the maximum likelihood estimate
- What would be the probability of "breaking the bank" in this 1985 Blackjack game? (Details in body)
Should we interpret x as being real valued and deterministic?