Improper integral convergence
$\int_{-\infty }^{0} xe^x dx$
Hi. Online calculators are telling me this converges to -1. My first instinct is that it diverges to negative infinity but I get what looks like an indeterminate form when I work through this. Can someone please explain why this converges to negative one? Thanks for your time.
here's what I have when after I substitute the bounds of the integral:
-1 - [ ($-\infty $ -1) (1)]
Hi. Online calculators are telling me this converges to -1. My first instinct is that it diverges to negative infinity but I get what looks like an indeterminate form when I work through this. Can someone please explain why this converges to negative one? Thanks for your time.
here's what I have when after I substitute the bounds of the integral:
-1 - [ ($-\infty $ -1) (1)]
Answer
Answers can only be viewed under the following conditions:
- The questioner was satisfied with and accepted the answer, or
- The answer was evaluated as being 100% correct by the judge.
4.8K
-
Leave a comment if you need any clarifications.
-
thanks philip
-
My pleasure!
The answer is accepted.
Join Matchmaticians Affiliate Marketing
Program to earn up to a 50% commission on every question that your affiliated users ask or answer.
- answered
- 1506 views
- $10.00
Related Questions
- Compute $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1-\arctan (\sin(x)+1)}{e^{x}-1}$
- Characterizing the Tangent and Normal Bundles - Submanifolds in Banach Spaces and Their Classifications
- Reduction formulae
- Exercise on Ito's rule for two correlated stocks.
- Find the area bounded by the graphs of two functions
- Calculate $\iint_R (x+y)^2 e^{x-y}dx dy$ on the given region
- Prove that $1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\dots+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} \leq 2 \sqrt{n}-1$
- Why does $ \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty } 2^{2n} \times \frac{(n!)^2}{n(2n+1)(2n)!} =2 $ ?