I have a question for 0/0 being undefined and wonder if anybody has a refutation.

I am wondering if 0/0 is an impossibility vs Undefined. Given that 0 is a privation of quantity. I'm wondering if 0/0 is really just asking if "nothing" can go into "nothing". If this is what the equation is asking, wouldn't that be assigning identity (Location) to "nothing" which would then make it "something". This would violate the law of excluded middle and lead to a logical contradiction. I'm curious if this has been argued before and if so what the counter would be? Is the pressuposition that 0 represents "nothing" false?

  • Gabe111 Gabe111
    +1

    This was a great explanation, thanks for your time!

    • Kav10 Kav10
      0

      Youā€™re welcome!

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  • Kav10 Kav10
    0

    If you want to know, here is a good paper that discusses how zero represents nothingness within our experience and its implications in mathematics and philosophy: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11229-019-02220-x

    • Kav10 Kav10
      0

      If you have more questions, you can submit direct question to me from my profile.

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