# Logic Question ¬¬π΄→π΄

## Answer

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Kav10

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The answer is accepted.

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This is a very short problem, are you sure it is correct?

do you mean to say the question is missing something or something else

The question seems complete, but the answer is quite short and straightforward.

To be more clear, this is a principle or law in propositional calculus. One could simply invoke such principle to prove that Β¬Β¬π΄βπ΄ because that is what the principle says.